THE TRUTH IN PRINT, February 2002

A Publication of the VALLEY CHURCH OF CHRIST,

2375 W. 8th Street, Yuma, AZ. 85364, (928) 539-7089 

Vol. 8, Issue 12

=======================================================

 

 

A Consideration of I Cor. 14:34-35

 

By Bob W. Lovelace

 

(KJV) 1 Cor. 14:34-35: Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. [35] And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.

 

(NASB) 1 Cor. 14:34-35: Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but let them subject themselves, just as the Law also says. [35] And if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church. (NASB)

 

A textual consideration, 

  

   The KJV says “your women” (See bold face which are mine above.), and the NASB says “the women.” The NKJV says “your women” with “your” being italicized and a marginal reference which says, “NU omits your.” (NU stands for variations found in the Critical Text. You can read about that in the preface to your Bible. It is part of the New Testament Scholarship that makes up the science of New Testament textual criticism.)

   The textual rendering of “your women  has led some to think that Paul has the wives of the prophets who are speaking in the assemblies in mind. And the textual rendering of  the women” has led some to conclude that women cannot speak under any circumstance in an assembly or in a bible class.

 

Women are to keep silent in the churches,

 

     The definition of  keep silent” from Strong’s Help: sigao, see-gah'-o; from Greek 4602 (sige); to keep silent (transitive or intransitive) :- keep close (secret, silence), ... hold peace.

 

Why are the women to keep silent?

 

    Answer: “...for they are not permitted to speak, but let them subject themselves, just as the Law also says” (NASB). The women are “not permitted to speak.” This is one of those “not” - “but” passages where the “but” qualifies the “not.” If you ignore the “but” qualification then it forbids a woman to speak at all. Singing is “speaking”! (Ephes. 5:19). The negative is qualified by “but let them subject themselves.” They are to remain “silent” (hold their peace) because they are to subject themselves. It is often emphasized that this is not the same word as “silence” in 1 Tim. 2:11-12,

    “Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. [12] But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.”

   To learn “in silence” simply means in “a quiet fashion” (see NASB Dictionary Help). The NASB says, “Let a woman quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness. [12] But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.” 

   If this means women can’t teach men at all then what are we to do with Acts 18:26? There Priscilla acted with her husband in instructing Apollos.  And again, when women sing they teach and admonish the men present through the words of the songs (Col. 3:16).

   I see little difference between what these two passages ( I Tim. 2:11-12; I Cor. 14:34-35) enjoin upon women.  

  Our passage under consideration in I Cor. 14:34 does not prohibit a woman speaking at all else she cannot sing, confess sin and ask for prayers on her behalf. It is not as if we have nothing to work with in the context of I Cor. 14 that helps to determine what Paul meant. If you trace the word “speak” backwards and apply its meaning to the use of the word thus far, then Paul is saying they are not to speak as the men are permitted to speak in the assemblies. For example, compare the “speaking” of the prophets just prior to this in 1 Cor. 14:29-30,

    “And let two or three prophets SPEAK, and let the others pass judgment. [30] But if a revelation is made to another who is seated, let the first keep silent.” (NASB)

   Also, compare the “speaking” in a tongue in 1 Cor. 14:27-28,

   “If anyone SPEAKS in a tongue, it should be by two or at the most three, and each in turn, and let one interpret; [28] but if there is no interpreter, let him keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God.” (NASB)

   All of this is predicated on 1 Cor. 14:26, “What is the outcome then, brethren? When you assemble, each one has a psalm, has a teaching, has a revelation, has a tongue, has an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification.”

   You’ll notice that some of  these speakers (the tongues and prophesies) have “silence” enjoined upon them as well but it is qualified by the circumstances. For example, in verse 27 those with the gift of tongues were limited to two or three at the most, each in turn, and one was to interpret. If there was no interpreter then Paul says “let him keep silent” (verse 28). With regard to the prophets there were to be just two or three who spoke and others were to judge. Verse 30 says, “But if a revelation is made to another who is seated, let the first keep silent.”

   Along with these injunctions Paul says, “Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but let them subject themselves, just as the Law also says.” According to I Cor. 11:5, some women who were in the church at Corinth prayed and prophesied. That women had the gift of prophesy is evident in other passages as well (Acts 2:17, 21:9). I believe I Cor. 14:34 says women in the assembly were to keep silent; they were not to count themselves among those mentioned in verse 26 who would be so speaking! The prohibition against women exercising authority over the man ( I Tim. 2:11-12) is why women don’t preach from the pulpit, serve the Lord’s Supper, lead in prayer, lead in singing, etc. when the church assembles.

 

What then is to be made of verse 35?

 

         The point of discussion usually turns here to Paul’s statement about women asking their own husbands at home. From “Let your women  (verse 34) it is assumed that only the wives of the prophets are under consideration.  And so these wives of the prophets are said to not be holding their peace by speaking out, and asking questions impulsively, thus interrupting the assembly. If so then Paul took care of something that the husbands should have!

   While it appears that there was  something” going on here I cannot determine the exact thing itself.  Since Paul has already told us in Chapter 7 that they had those not married, those married to unbelievers, and also widows in the church, it does suggest a point of “disorder” on the part of wives with husbands. Whatever it was they were doing in their desire to learn something it violated being in subjection. Their desire to “learn” must never over-ride their authority to teach “only” under qualified circumstances; that desire is not a license for them to not be in quietness. (I Tim. 2:11-12) 

   There have many suggestions (speculations) about what the disorder might have been. Some think that women were answering women’s questions at the same time the others were speaking. In view of verses 34 & 35 following closely upon the injunctions to those who were permitted to address the assembly that does appear to be a possibility. If it was that kind of thing it certainly violated the rule of doing things “decently” (I Cor. 14:40). What was said was to be said by one (in turn) that “all might learn and all might be encouraged” (v. 31).  The message delivered by “the” speaker was for the benefit of all.  And above all that would be a violation of the woman’s role as stated in I Tim. 2:11-12. Two or more, to the exclusion of the rest, are not permitted to have their own little edification cession during the assembly.

 

 Back to the Table of Contents

 

 

Home